2025年九年级第一次联考
英语
（全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡上。
2．考生作答时，请在答题卡上作答（答题注意事项见答题卡），在本试卷上作答无效。
3．先考听力，在听力开始前有两分钟听力试音时间。
一、听力（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分。）
（一）听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1．______ 2．______ 3．______ 4．______ 5．______
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6．What will the woman have for dinner tonight
A．Rice. B．Noodles. C．Dumplings.
7．Which subject are they going to learn next lesson
A．Chemistry. B．English. C．Maths.
8．When was the telephone invented
A．In 1867. B．In 1876. C．In 1927.
9．Where are the two speakers
A．In a library. B．In a classroom. C．In a bookshop.
10．How many times has the woman been to Liuzhou in all
A．Once. B．Twice. C．Three times.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
11．What does Alice think of Mark Twain’s novels
A．Boring. B．Relaxing. C．Fantastic.
12．What does Alice want to be in the future
A．A writer. B．A teacher. C．A reporter.
13．What will Alice do on Sunday
A．Do her homework. B．Write stories. C．Go to the library.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
14．How long has Mike studied English
A．For three terms. B．For three months. C．For three years.
15．What problem does Mike have in learning English
A．He can’t spell words well. B．He isn’t sure about grammar. C．He isn’t good at pronunciation.
16．When will Mike and Lucy meet in the evening
A．At half past five. B．At half past six. C．At seven o’clock.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
17．How many flights to Paris are there every week
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four.
18．How can the man get to the airport
A．By car. B．By taxi. C．By bus.
19．How long does it take the man to get to the airport
A．About1.5 hours. B．About 2.5 hours. C．About 3.5 hours.
20．How much will the man pay for the ticket
A．$150. B．$200. C．$300.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21．Who invented the new kind of robot
A．A college girl. B．A doctor and his wife. C．Three young men.
22．What does Home Doctor look like
A．A lovely dog. B．A lovely girl. C．A lively monkey.
23．What is Home Doctor made from
A．Glass and plastic. B．Rubber and glass. C．Plastic and paper.
24．What can Home Doctor do
A．Teach the babies. B．Drive to hospitals. C．Treat simple cuts.
25．How will Home Doctor be in the future
A．Popular. B．Necessary. C．Important.
（五）听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上。每空一词。短文读三遍。
A New Club
The name of the club The 26 Club
Things you need to do ●bring your lunch 27 that can be used again ●choose and report the classes that make the 28 rubbish. ●not come to school in a car on 29 which is the no-car day ● 30 water because some can be reused
二、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分。）
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
Alan: Would you like to drink something, Jenny
Jenny: Yes. 31
Alan: Here you are.
Jenny: Thanks. How beautiful the tea set is! 32
Alan: I bought it in Jingdezhen, Jiangxi Province.
Jenny: 33
Alan: It’s made from a special kind of clay (陶土).
Jenny: 34
Alan: No, I don’t know how it was made. Why don’t we go online and find it out
Jenny: 35 Let’s look it up.
A．Good idea!
B．That sounds boring.
C．I’d like a cup of tea.
D．What’s it made from
E．Where did you buy it
F．Do you know how it was made
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分。）
阅读下面的语篇，从各个小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Torbjorn Pedersen is a Danish traveler. He spent nearly 10 years visiting every country in the world-and he did it all without 36 .
As he began to plan his trip, he made a few 37 : no flying, no visiting home, and spend over 24 hours in every country. The first part of his trip was pretty easy, 38 he had to give up his job and leave his parents and girlfriend behind. He traveled across Europe and North America, where his biggest challenge (挑战) was not spending too much 39 . He hoped to live on about $20 a day.
But as he moved on to other parts of the world, things began to get much 40 . He traveled in cargo containers (集装箱), in the back of trucks with 50 other people and 41 on a boat for days during a storm. Sometimes he paid for a place to 42 ; sometimes people invited him into their homes. At other times, he had to sleep 43 .
Mr. Pedersen says that one reason he didn’t give up was the help he got from people all over the world. “You might have to try 1,000 44 doors,” he says, “But there is always an open door somewhere. Never, ever give up.”
Mr. Pedersen says he’s looking forward to some quiet time to 45 his trip. After that, he plans to write a book and share what he learned in his travels around the world.
36．A．walking B．riding C．flying
37．A．rules B．mistakes C．friends
38．A．so B．though C．or
39．A．time B．energy C．money
40．A．harder B．easier C．larger
41．A．still B．even C．already
42．A．play B．stay C．work
43．A．home B．inside C．outside
44．A．closed B．crowded C．coloured
45．A．worry about B．care about C．think about
四、阅读理解（本大题共20小题，每小题2分，共40分。）
第一节：根据语篇内容，选择正确答案。
A
“San Francisco is my favorite place to visit for several reasons,” Jacob said aloud. He stood in the front of the classroom, giving his report.
“The city, first of all, has wonderful sights to see. You can see fishing boats of all sizes parked at the bank. One street, Lombard, is a tourist attraction. It is the most crooked (弯曲的) street in the world!
San Francisco also has many different things you can do. Riding a cable car (缆车) is exciting as you race up and down the narrow streets. People can ride bikes, walk along the ocean, or roller-blade. Tourists can do some shopping or eat fresh clam chowder (蛤蜊汤), a famous local dish, from bowls made of bread.
San Francisco is a place I could talk about for hours, but these are just a few reasons to go there for a visit.”
“Wow!” said my teacher. “Wow, wow, wow! Let’s just get in the car and go to San Francisco!”
We all cheered. Oh, if only we could.
46．What was Jacob doing in class
A．He was singing a song. B．He was giving a report. C．He was acting in a play.
47．What did Jacob think of the sights in San Francisco
A．Awful. B．Terrible. C．Wonderful.
48．What is Lombard
A．A street. B．A museum. C．A restaurant.
49．Which of the following is NOT an activity that Jacob mentioned
A．Riding in a cable car. B．Watching a baseball game. C．Eating clam chowder.
50．When Jacob’s report came to an end, what did the class want to do
A．They wanted to listen to more reports.
B．They wanted to play math games.
C．They wanted to take a trip to San Francisco.
B
Summer Programs at Museums
The Science Museum Date: August 7th-20th Age: 9-12 You can experience video arts and computer technology, play VR games to explore a future city and ask the robots questions about science. It will be wonderful! Have fun! Tel: 3573030
The Building Museum Date: August 21st-27th Age: 13-15 Want to enjoy designing challenges Come and join us. You can also go on field trips to some famous buildings and build small houses with soft blocks (积木). All the programs are free. Tel: 272 0560
The Postal Museum Date: July 17th-23rd Age: 11-13 Would you like to join us this summer vacation You can create a stamp with your own design (设计). Write and mail a postcard and learn about the history of stamps. Tel: 956 0400
The Air and Space Museum Date: July 29th-30th Age: 8-11 If you enjoy programs about air and space, please come here. It’s a good place to make and fly your own paper airplane, watch an IMAX movie, and climb into a real airplane. Tel: 6540930
51．When can you join in the program at the Science Museum
A．On August 7th. B．On August 27th. C．On July 17th.
52．Which museum can a 15-year-old student take part in
A．The Building Museum. B．The Postal Museum. C．The Art and Space Museum.
53．Which number can you phone if you are interested in designing stamps
A．3573030. B．6540930. C．9560400.
54．What can you do in the Air and Space Museum
A．Build a house. B．Make a paper airplane. C．Explore a future city.
55．Which of the following is TRUE according to the poster
A．You can ask robots questions about science in the Science Museum.
B．You can build small houses with hard blocks in the Building Museum.
C．You can enjoy climbing into a paper airplane in the Air and Space Museum.
C
①The jackfruit (菠萝蜜) is a delicious fruit found in some parts of Asia. But there is more to the fruit than just its taste. When considering the fruit’s English name, it is easy to think about questions like: “Who is Jack And why does he have his own fruit ” Surprisingly, “jackfruit” isn’t a person’s name at all. It firstly comes from the southern Indian word chakka pazham, and India is thought to produce the fruit. Portuguese explorers (葡萄牙探险家) who journeyed to this area went on to call it jaca, which leads us to the current (现在的) English name of jackfruit.
②There is another food, however, that was directly named after a person—the sandwich. In the 18th century, playing card games late into the night became fashionable in British high society. John Montagu, the 4th Earl (伯爵) of Sandwich, started the habit of ordering pieces of cold beef between two pieces of bread in order to get a late-night snack without having to leave the gaming table or use a knife and fork. The midnight snack quickly became popular among everyday people, and soon everyone was making their own sandwiches. That is how the sandwich was invented and got its name.
③Away from the world of food, there are more examples of names inspired (灵感启发) by people. Long johns, the trousers that keep us warm in winter, are said to have been named after the US boxer John L. Sullivan who wore a similar type of trousers in the game.
④There are many other interesting etymologies (词源) in the English language like these. So the next time you find an interesting name, why not explore its history too
56．How does the writer start the passage
A．By giving an example. B．By giving numbers. C．By using a famous saying.
57．What can we know from Paragraph 2
A．Sandwich was a poor man.
B．Sandwich was crazy about card games.
C．Sandwich was a card game.
58．Who is John L. Sullivan
A．An explorer. B．An Earl. C．A boxer.
59．What’s the structure of this passage
A． B． C．
60．Why did the writer write this passage
A．To help people to make their own food and name it after themselves.
B．To encourage people to find out more about the history behind language.
C．To let people know what to wear when you go to watch a boxing game.
第二节：根据语篇内容，回答5个问题。
D
An ancient philosopher’s wisdom (哲学家的智慧) can be compared in value to gold. Now The Art of War (《孙子兵法》) by the great thinker Sun Tzu has actually been printed on gold. There are 5,000 of these books in bookstores across China, costing 19,600 yuan each.
Known as the world’s oldest book on military strategy (兵法), it was firstly written on bamboo strips. Sun Tzu lived in about 500 BC in the late Spring and Autumn Period. There is little information about Sun Tzu’s real life.
But according to one story, the king asked Sun Tzu to show his way of training the army. Two groups of the king’s women played the soldiers and two of the king’s favourites acted as commanders (指挥官). Sun Tzu gave them orders, but they thought it was just a game and couldn’t stop laughing. Sun Tzu said, “If the order is not clear, it’s my fault (错), but if the order is clear and soldiers don’t obey, it’s the commanders’ fault.” He then killed the two commanders, although the king wanted to protect them. When Sun Tzu gave new orders, all of them performed perfectly.
Sun Tzu’s book became popular with leaders in Asia and later in the West. In 1782, a Frenchman named Amiot took the book to Europe. It is said that Napoleon used its ideas while fighting in Europe.
The Art of War is today used in business, sport, and even relationships. Sun Tzu is possibly the most quoted (被引用的) Chinese in the world. One saying is, “If you know the enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles.”
61．How much is one copy of the book printed on gold (within 5 words限定五个词内答完)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
62．What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
____________________________________________________________________________________________
63．Why couldn’t the king’s women stop laughing
____________________________________________________________________________________________
64．How do you say “知己知彼百战不殆” in English according to the passage
____________________________________________________________________________________________
65．What do you think of the book The Art of War
____________________________________________________________________________________________
五、选词填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空，将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
good work make in because easy deeply her parent teacher
Over the past 13 years, 31-year-old Li Hongjia has helped nearly 500 deaf-mute (聋哑的) children return to school.
Li was born 66 central China. When she was in college, she began to 67 with deaf-mute children as a volunteer in a rehabilitation (康复) center. She wanted to be a 68 in the center to help these children more. And she made it. However, it wasn’t 69 for Li to work in the center at first. Li couldn’t afford a big room 70 she only got 800 yuan a month. She had to live in a small room of less than 10 square meters. Even the bed was 71 with two chairs by herself. The biggest problem came from Li’s 72 . They couldn’t accept their daughter’s job. Her father even refused to see 73 . But when he saw the children for the first time, he was touched 74 and got a better understanding of his daughter’s work.
Li tries her 75 to teach the children to speak. “If a job is only for money, I would not choose it,” Li said. “This job gives me a great sense of achievement.”
六、书面表达（15分）
假定你是李华，你的外籍朋友Sam知道你校各类运动社团将进行新成员招募。你将加入哪个运动社团？请你用英语写一封邮件，告知他相关的情况。内容包括：
1．学校创办的各类运动社团（篮球、足球、武术等）；
2．你希望加入的一个运动社团及你对这个社团的了解（社团人数、活动时间或形式等）
3．你的对加入运动社团的期待（发展爱好，强身健体等）；
注意：
1．词数为80左右；
2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3．文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称；
4．开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数，
参考词汇：member (成员), Chinese Kung fu (武术), develop (v. 发展), build up a strong body (强身健体)
Dear Sam,
How is it going I’m glad to tell you that our school sports clubs will recruit new members.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
2024-2025学年九年级第一次联考
英语学科答案及听力原文
【答案】
一、听力
1-4 BCFDA 6-10 CABCC 11-13 CAC 14-16 CBB 17-20 BCAA 21-25 CBACA
26．Environment 27．box 28．least 29．Wednesday 30．save
二、补全对话
31-35 CEDFA
三、完形填空
36-40 CABCA 41-45 BBCAC
四、阅读理解
第一节
46-50 BCABC 51-55 AACBA 56-60 ABCCB
第二节
任务型阅读评分标准
总体原则
1．每句单独评分，每句实行双评，误差1分，步长0.5；
2．满分必须包含准确的关键信息，无任何错误，允许简略回答；
3．关键信息有错误，视错误占答案中的比例酌情扣分；
4．句子累计其它错误1-2处扣0.5分，3-4处扣1分，以此类推；
5．字母大小写及标点符号最多算一处错（即同一句中字母大小写及标点符号错其中一项或两项都错仅算一处错，不重复扣分）；
分题细则
61．It is/costs 19, 600 yuan.
2分：完整回答或简略回答19600 yuan.且无任何错误。
1.5分：简略回答时，yuan 的拼写错误，但尚能看得出是yuan；完整回答时关键信息无误，但出现1～2处其他错误，如首字母没有大写和标点缺漏、单词拼写错误、动词时态或形式错误等。
1分：简略回答时，数字写错或遗漏yuan；完整回答时累计出现3-4错误，如首字母没有大写、单词拼写错误、动词时态或形式错误等。
0.5分：简略回答时随意写一个不相关的数字且没有写yuan；完整回答时有虽然错误较多，但尚能呈现相关的句子成分，如It is 或It costs等。
0分：不作答，或答非所问且看不出任何相关的信息或句子成分。
62．It refers to The Art of War/ the world’s oldest book on military strategy.
2分：完整回答或简略回答The Art of War 或The world’s oldest book on military strategy.且无任何错误。
1.5分：完整回答或简略回答时出现1～2处其他错误，如首字母没有大写和标点缺漏、单词拼写错误、动词时态或形式错误等。
1分：完整回答或简略回答时累计出现3～4处错误或缺漏，但尚能呈现答案所指，如首字母没有大写、单词拼写错误、单词缺漏、动词时态或形式错误等。
0.5分：简略回答时，只能写出关键信息中的个别词；完整回答时有虽然错误较多，但尚能呈现相关的句子成分，如It refers to，。
0分：不作答，或答非所问且看不出任何相关的信息或句子成分。
Because they thought it was just a game.
2分：完整回答或简略回答They thought it was just a game.且无任何错误。
1.5分：出现1～2处错误或缺漏，如首字母没有大写和标点缺漏、单词拼写错误、动词时态或形式错误等。
1分：出现3～4处错误或缺漏，如缺漏They thought 或没有表述just a game 而采用其他的表述。
0.5分：简略回答时，只能写出关键信息中的个别词；只写了Because，。
0分：不作答，或答非所问且看不出任何相关的信息或句子成分。
If you know the enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles.
2分：完整回答且无任何错误。
1.5分：累计出现1～2处错误或缺漏，如首字母没有大写和标点缺漏，、单词拼写错误、动词时态或形式错误等。
1分：累计出现3～4处错误或缺漏，但基本能判断出答案所指。
0.5分：只能写出关键信息中的个别词。
0分：不作答，或答非所问且看不出任何相关的关键信息或句子成分。
65. I think it’s popular/ useful/ helpful/ widely used. (言之有理即可)
2分：完整回答或用一个相关的形容词简略回答或采用其他能表达看法的表述且无任何错误，观点要符合社会主义核心价值观。
1.5分：完整回答时，关键信息（形容词）无误，出现1～2处其他错误，如首字母没有大写和标点缺漏，单词拼写错误、动词时态或形式错误等，或仅关键信息（形容词）出现拼写错误, 但能判断出所表达的观点，观点要符合社会主义核心价值观。。
1分：只写了I think it's 或It's，或写了无法表达观点的其他形容词，或采用其他的表述，虽句式完整且表达的观点不违背社会主义核心价值观，但针对该问题未答到点子上或答案不合理。
0.5分：只写了I think 或It，或采用其他表述时只能看出部分句子成分。
0分：不作答，或表达的观点违背社会主义核心价值观。
五、选词填空
66．in 67．work 68．teacher 69．easy 70．because
71．made 72．parents 73．her 74．deeply 75．best
六、书面表达
Dear Sam,
How is it going I'm glad to tell you that our school sports clubs will recruit new members. There are many sports clubs in our school, such as basketball club, football club, Chinese Kung fu club, and so on.
The basketball club is the most popular one in our school. Now there are 80 members in it. They train on Monday and Wednesday after school. And every Friday afternoon, there is an exciting basketball match in the club.
I like basketball very much and I’d like to join the basketball club. I want to develop my hobby. Also, I hope to build up a strong body.
Yours,
Li Hua
书面表达评分标准
第五档（14-15分）: 篇幅 小技巧
15分：完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点。句子结构完整，意思清楚，语句流畅。书写规范。没有语法和词汇错误，有1-3处的涂改。词数不少于70词。 要点完整，篇幅长 零错误，有1-3处涂改
14分：完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点。句子结构完整，意思清楚，语句流畅。书写规范。有1-2处左右的语法和词汇错误（不包括涂改）。词数不少于70词。 要点完整，篇幅长 1-2处错误； 若词数少于60．但无任何语法错误也只定14分。
第四档（11-13分） 若词数少于60．扣一分。
13分：基本完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点。句子结构较完整，意思清楚，书写较规范。有3-4处左右的语法和词汇错误。词数在60词左右。 要点完整，篇幅长 3-4处错误
12分：基本完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点。能以句子呈现内容要点。书写较规范。有5-6处左右的语法和词汇错误。词数在60词左右。 要点完整，篇幅长 5-6处错误 全文用过去时而无其它错误，降档至12分左右
11分：基本完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点。能以句子呈现内容要点。有7-10处左右的语法和词汇错误。词数在60词左右。 要点完整，篇幅长 7-10处错误 若行文较流畅，因词数过多导致错处超过10处，但表达明显优于其它10分作文，可考虑给11分
第三档（8-10分）: 定分尽量往10分靠； 错误大于10处的书面表达，直接数出含有主谓结构正确的句子个数，然后按照第二和第三档对应的分值来定分即可。
10分：能根据内容要点及写作要求构成3-4句简单的句子，虽错误较多但尚能表达意思。词数在30词左右。 篇幅中等长度 3-4句主谓正确
9分：能根据内容要点及写作要求构成2-3句简单的句子，虽错误较多但尚能表达意思。词数在30词左右。 篇幅中等长度 2-3句主谓正确
8分：能根据内容要点及写作要求构成1-2句简单的句子，虽错误较多但尚能表达意思。词数在30词左右。 篇幅中等长度 1-2句主谓正确
第二档（6-7分）:
7分：能写出2个与题目要求相关的句子，能看出基本句子结构。 篇幅短 即数出含有主谓结构正确的句子个数：有2个句子主谓结构正确，可得7分。
6分：能写出1个与题目要求相关的句子，能看出基本句子结构。 篇幅短 即数出含有主谓结构正确的句子个数：有1个句子主谓结构正确，可得6分。
第一档（0一5分）:
5分：正确抄写4个提示词； 照抄4个提示词 照抄答题卡书面表达第一段的句子，由于这些句子与题目要求相关，给5分。
4分：正确抄写3个提示词： 照抄3个提示词
3分：正确抄写2个提示词； 照抄2个提示词
2分：正确抄写1个提示词； 照抄2个提示词
0分：空白卷、抄写试卷上的试题、书写与作文无关的内容或书写一些完全无法看出单词的混乱字母等。
注：如果没有抄写提示词，写对与作文信息相关的词汇／词组也可视词汇／词组的多少给相应的分数，次档最高分5分。
【听力原文】
这是2024-2025学年度九年级第一次联考，英语科听力部分，下面是听力试音时间。
W: Hi, Mark. I want to have a class party. Will you help me
M: Sure, Alice. So when shall we have the party
W: What about Friday afternoon We won’t have any lessons then.
M: Good idea. We can all meet and play party games.
W: Wonderful. I can play the dance music.
M: I will bring some flowers and paint some pictures for the party.
W: Nice. And we want different kinds of food.
M: You’re right. We can ask Jackson and Lucy for help.
W: OK. Let’s start to get ready for the party.
M: No problem.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
（一）听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. The newspapers are free to readers.
2. The sign says you must not ride here.
3. People are planting trees to help protect the environment.
4. Don’t leave the water running when you wash the dishes.
5. Li Ming went for a picnic with her friends yesterday.
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. M: Do you often have rice for dinner
W: No, I often eat noodles. But I’ll have dumplings for dinner tonight.
Q: What will the woman have for dinner tonight
7. M: Which subject are we going to learn next lesson
W: Chemistry. Chemistry lesson is very interesting.
Q: Which subject are they going to learn next lesson
8. W: Hi, Allan, do you know something about the useful invention “telephone”
M: Of course, as far as I know, the telephone was invented by Alexander Bell in 1876.
Q: When was the telephone invented
9. M: Have you got Shakespeare’s plays I’d like to buy one.
W: Yes. They are on the first shelf. And they’re on sale today, just half price.
Q: Where are the two speakers
10. M: Welcome to Liuzhou. Is this your first time to visit our city
W: No, this is the third time. I first came here in 2018 and then in 2023.
Q: How many times has the woman been to Liuzhou in all
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
M: Alice, I remember you have read The Adventures of Tom Sawyer twice. Don’t you feel bored
W: No, Dad. I really like Mark Twain’s novels. His novels are fantastic. I want to be a writer in the future.
M: I’m very glad that you want to be a writer. How are you going to make it
W: I’m going to keep on writing stories.
M: Great. Hope your dream will come true. What are you going to do this weekend
W: I’m going to do my homework this Saturday. I will go to the library to borrow more books on Sunday. Would you like to go with me
M: Sure.
W: Great! See you.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
W: Oh, Mike. Your English is so good. How long have you studied it
M: Thank you, Lucy. I have learned English for three years.
W: Do you think it is difficult to learn
M: I don’t think so. But sometimes I’m not quite sure about grammar.
W: Yes, I feel the same. But if you speak and read more, you’ll find it not so hard. By the way, there is an English evening in our school today. Would you like to join us
M: Yes, I’d love to. When shall we meet Six o’clock
W: Six o’clock is too early. Shall we meet at half past six
M: OK, see you later.
W: And don’t forget to bring a notebook and a pen.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
W: Good morning. Can I help you
M: Good morning. I have to leave for France next week, so I’d like some information about flights to Paris.
W: There are flights on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
M: What time do they leave
W: At 10 am.
M: OK. Wednesday is the best for me. How can I get to the airport
W: You can take the six o’clock bus from the bus station on Main Street.
M: How long does it take
W: About one and a half hours.
M: How much is a ticket to Paris
W: It’s 300 dollars, but if you have a student card, you can pay only 150 dollars.
M: Yes, I’ve got a student card. Here it is.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
Last week, I went to the science and technology museum. I was greatly interested in a new kind of robot — Home Doctor. Home Doctor was invented two months ago. And it was invented by three young men who are still college students in Xi’an. It looks like a lovely girl, and it is about 1.2 meters tall. It is made from recycled products such as glass and plastic. Home Doctor can not only give people lots of advice on health, but also treat common illness and wounds from home accidents like simple cuts. It will save people a lot of time because they needn’t go to the hospital when they feel sick or hurt. What’s more, it can help take good care of the old people and babies at home. I believe Home Doctor will be very popular with people in the future.
（五）听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上。每空一词。短文读三遍。
Hello, boys and girls. We are setting up a new club--The Environment Club in our school on Thursday. If you join the club, it means you are going to do the things below.
First, you are going to have no-rubbish lunch. As a club member, you need to bring your lunch box that can be used again. Every week you will choose the classes that make the least rubbish and report them to the whole school.
Next, you will tell your classmates that every Wednesday is a no-car day. On the no-car day, nobody comes to school in a car -- neither the students nor the teachers! Use your legs! There will be lots of fun.
Finally, save water! Some water can be reused. We can start by doing something about our daily water use.
