2025-2026:一中双语七年级上学期第一次月考
英 语 总分:100 分 时量:100 分钟
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 20 分)
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。
听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15 B. 9.18 C. 9.15 答案是 C。
1. What colour are Mary’s pencils
A. Green. B. Red. C. Brown.
2. Who is Tom’s brother
A. Bob. B. Frank. C. William.
3. What can Ella keep in her city
A. Rabbits. B. Horses. C. Dogs.
4. What does Peter think of Lily’s yard
A. Small. B. Beautiful. C. Old.
5. Where are the white socks
A. On the bed. B. On the chair. C. Under the bed.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
听下面 6 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的
作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
6. Who is Lucy
A. Jane’s cousin. B. Jane’s daughter. C. Helen’s mother.
7. Which school is Helen in
A. No. 4 Middle School. B. No. 5 Middle School. C. No. 9 Middle School.
听第七段材料,回答第 8、9 题。
8. What does the boy want to know
A. How to use a dictionary. B. How to spell “giraffe” C. What “giraffe” is.
9. How does Emma feel about learning words
A. It’s interesting. B. It’s easy. C. It’s difficult.
听第八段材料,回答第 10、11 题。
10. Where may the two speakers be
A. At school. B. At home. C. At a shop.
11. What is in the boy’s schoolbag
A. A pencil box. B. A water bottle. C. A sun cap.
第 1 页
听第九段材料,回答第 12 至 14 题。
12. Where is the first thing in the guessing game (猜谜游戏)
A. In the bag. B. On the desk. C. Under the bed.
13. What is the first thing
A. A pencil. B. An eraser. C. A book.
14. What colour is the cap
A. Red. B. Pink. C. Orange.
听第十段材料,回答第 15 至 17 题。
15. Who has this yard
A. Emily. B. Emily’s parents. C. Emily’s grandma.
16. What animals are near the tree
A. Cats. B. Dogs. C. Baby chickens.
17. What does Emily often do in the yard
A. She waters the plants.
B. She plants trees.
C. She plays with her friends.
听第十一段材料,回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. What are the speaker’s new students like
A. Quiet. B. Clever. C. Kind.
19. Why do people in Texas say “Howdy”
A. To call people. B. To greet people. C. To thank people.
20. What do the speaker’s students talk about in class
A. Food. B. Hometowns. C. Friends.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 10 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 20 分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Name of Movie: Dead To Rights
Director(导演): Ao Sheng
Type: Drama(剧情片)
Time: 7:00 p.m. - 9:17 p. m.
Place: Bona Cinema
Price: ¥ 48 adults (成人);¥ 24 students (学生)
Best for: Those who like warm stories and history
Name of Movie: Nobody Director: Shui Yu
Type: Animation (动画片)
Time: 6:15 p. m. - 8:13 p.m.
Place: Wanda Cinema
Price: ¥ 54.9
Children under 120cm are free.
Best for: Those who like animation and funny stories
21. If you like funny stories, you will choose _____.
A. Dead To Rights B. Nobody C. Neither
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22. How much should you pay (支付) if you watch the movie Dead To Rights with your parents
A. ¥ 72 B. ¥96 C. ¥120
B
Many Chinese children are busy. On weekdays (工作日), they have many lessons (课程) at school, and they
have to do homework in the evening. On Saturdays and Sundays, they often take part in (参加) many activities (活
动) in all kinds of clubs. At the same time, their parents are busy too. They have to work, cook and drive their
children for the activities. Some families even do not have time to have dinner together. A community (社区) in
Nanjing wants to do something to make a change (改变).
The community takes Saturday out just for the families. People in the community call it “Family Day”. On
Family Day, parents don’t work and the children have no lessons. All the families turn off their televisions and
mobile phones. They cook and eat together at home, and then the parents will play with their children in the open
air. They really enjoy the time together.
23. According to (根据) the passage, many Chinese families are very _____.
A. free B. happy C. busy
24. What do many children do in the evening on weekdays
A. They watch TV. B. They go to clubs. C. They do their homework.
25. Family Day is on _____.
A. Friday B. Saturday C. Sunday
26. What is WRONG (错误的) about family members on Family Day
A. They cook together. B. They play together. C. They watch TV.
C
What colour is the sea It’s blue. What colour is the grass It’s green. What colour is the snow It’s white.
Everything has its own colour.
In an art class, our art teacher says, “Red, blue and green are three primary colours (三原色).” If we put red
and green together, we can get yellow. If we put red and yellow together, we can get orange. That’s interesting.
Different colors can give us different feelings and they have different meanings. The same colour also has different
meanings in different places. In China, people like red very much. Because they think red can give good luck to
them. But in Thailand, it is a bad colour. In most countries, people like green, but people from England and Japan
don’t like it. In Australia, people think black cats can give them good luck. But in America, people prefer white
cats, because they’re cute animals and they bring good luck to people.
In our lives, we can learn about the meanings of different colours. Then we can use colours in a right way.
27. What are the three primary colours
A. White, green and brown. B. Red, blue and green. C. Orange, green and brown.
28. In which country do people think red is bad
A. In China. B. In Japan. C. In Thailand.
29. What does the underlined (下划线的) word in paragraph (段落) 3 mean
A. 讨厌 B. 更喜爱 C. 害怕
30. What is the main idea (主旨) of this passage (文章)
A. Colours and animals.
B. Different meanings of colours.
C. Chinese people’s favourite colours.
第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项仅使用一次。
Dictionaries are nice tools (工 具 ) for learning English. They help students to learn new words. Using a
dictionary is useful, _____31_____.
First, students should know how to hold (握住) a dictionary. _____32_____ so hold it with your two hands.
第 3 页
Open the cover (封面) and look at the pages. The words are arranged (排列) from letter A to letter Z.
_____33_____ Look for the first letter of the word you want to find. Then find the page the letter is on. Then,
look for the word in the list (列表).
Once you find the word, read the definition (释义). The definition tells you what the word means (意思是).
_____34_____ Read all of them to know how the word can be used. Some dictionaries also give examples (例子)
of how to use the word. It helps to learn the word better.
If you don’t know how to spell a word, the dictionary can help. Look for words that have similar sound (相似
的发音) to the one you’re thinking of. _____35_____
Dictionaries also have pictures for some words. This is very helpful for new English learners. Seeing a picture
can make it easy to remember (记住) the word.
A. There might be more than one definition.
B. so every student should know how to use it.
C. It’s a big book,
D. You might find how to spell it right (正确的) that way.
E. To find a word, start at the front (前面) of the dictionary
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 25 分)
第一节(共 10 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Peter’s uncle has a farm. _____36_____ the farm, there are many kinds of animals, like sheep and cows. Peter
likes to play with _____37_____ because the animals can make him happy.
On the farm, there is also a little horse. It never plays with other _____38_____ and always walks around by
itself. Peter likes it very much. And the horse is very _____39_____ to Peter. When it _____40_____ Peter on the
farm, it runs up to him. Sometimes Peter _____41_____ on the ground and reads a book. The little horse stands by
him.
His uncle always asks him: “_____42_____ does the little horse like you so much ” “Because it knows I
really _____43_____ it,” Peter says. Peter’s uncle thinks Peter is _____44_____. Animals are our _____45_____
and we should love them.
36. A. On B. Under C. In
37. A. them B. it C. us
38. A. trees B. people C. animals
39. A. friendly (友好的) B. big C. strong
40. A. knows B. sees C. greets
41. A. sits B. runs C. jumps
42. A. Why B. How C. What
43. A. help B. love C. ride
44. A. quiet B. busy C. right
45. A. babies B. teachers C. friends
第二节(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Welcome to my channel (频道). I _____46_____ (be) Charlotte Smith. Charlotte is my _____47_____ (one)
name and Smith is my last name. I am from London. But now I live in Changsha with _____48_____ (I) family.
Changsha is a beautiful city (城市). I love it very much.
Look! This is my family photo. You can _____49_____ (see) I have a big family. Can you see me in the photo
There are six people in my family. Oh, I’m in a red jacket. The boy with a pair _____50_____ glasses is my brother,
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George. He _____51_____ (like) playing ping-pong. My father, William and my mother, Kate are in the photo, too.
They work (工作) in Changsha now. My father is a doctor and my mother is _____52_____ English teacher. My
_____53_____ (grandparent) are very old. You can see they are in black.
George and I study in the same class in my _____54_____ (mother) school. We have some friends there. They
are all nice to us. I love my family _____55_____ friends.
第四部分 读写综合(共两节;满分 25 分)
第一节(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
Good morning! My name is Susan. Look! This is my room. It isn’t big. There is a bed, a desk and a chair in it.
All my things are in good order (顺序).
My books are on my desk. What’s that on the chair It’s my bag. The bag is white and red. I like the colours
very much.
What’s the picture on the bag It’s a picture of a mascot (吉祥物). The mascot is for the Paris 2024 Olympics
(奥运会). Its name is Phryge. Can I spell “Phryge” Yes, P-H-R-Y-G-E. What colour is the mascot It’s red, white
and blue. It has big blue eyes. The mascot is cute and I like it very much. Do you like it
What is in my bag A ruler is in it. And the ruler is green. It’s my sister Lily’s. She likes green, but I don’t.
Two pencils are in it too. One is red, and the other is blue. A bottle is also in my bag. The bottle is yellow and blue.
It’s my bottle and it’s from my dad.
56. Where is Susan’s bag
________________________________________________________________________________________
57. What colour are Phryge’s eyes
________________________________________________________________________________________
59. How many things are there in Susan’s bag
________________________________________________________________________________________
60. What do you think of Susan’s room (10 个词以内)
________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(共 1 小题;满分 15 分)
根据要求完成短文写作。
61. 房间是青少年的一方温馨天地,阅读完苏珊对自己房间的详细介绍后,下面请结合自身情况围绕你
自己的房间展开思考:你的房间是什么样子的呢?请根据以下思维导图的提示,以 My Room 为主题,用英
语写一篇短文介绍你的房间。
(1)内容必须包含思维导图中所有要点信息,介绍的物品不少于 3 项;
(2)60 词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
(3)文中不得出现真实人名和校名。
My Room
Hello, everyone! Welcome to my room. It’s _____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第 5 页
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第 6 页
2025-2026:一中双语七年级上学期第一次月考英语试卷
参考答案
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 20 分)
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
【1~5 题】ABCBC
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
【6~20 题】AB CA BA BCA BCA CBB
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 10 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 20 分)
【21~22 题】BC
【23~26 题】CCBC
【27~30 题】BCBB
第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
【31~35 题】BCEAD
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 25 分)
第一节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
【36~45 题】AACAB AABCD
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
【46~55 题】
46. am 47. first
48. my 49. see
50. wearing 51. likes
52. an 53. grandparents
54. mother’s 55. kind
第四部分 读写综合(共两节,满分 25 分)
第一节(每小题 2 分,共 10 分)
56. It’s on the chair.
57. They are big and blue.
58. No, she doesn’t.
59. Four.(A ruler, two pencils and a bottle)
60. It’s small but tidy.(符合“10 词以内”,体现“小”或“整洁”即可)
第二节(满分 15 分)
61.例文
My Room
Hello, everyone! Welcome to my room. It’s not big but tidy. There is a white bed in my room. It’s near the
window. A blue desk is next to the bed. My books and a red pencil box are on the desk. A yellow chair is in front of
the desk. I love my room very much.
第 7 页
