江西省赣州市南康区2024-2025八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(无答案)

2024-2025学年度第一学期教学质量检测试卷
八年级英语
温馨提示:1.本卷分为试题卷和答题卷,答案须写在答题卷上,否则不予给分。
2.本卷共7大题、86小题,全卷满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
一、听力测试(每小题1分,共20分)
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。
Which sport does Jim like best
A. Volleyball. B. Basketball. C. Football.
答案是C。
A)请听下面五段简短对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分,共5分)
( )1 . What is Mary going to do tomorrow
A. Go shopping. B. Play tennis. C.Go camping.
( )2. When did Rick try paragliding
A. On Monday. B. On Tuesday. C. On Wednesday.
( )3. Where did Helen go yesterday
A. To the beach. B. To the library. C. To the village.
( )4. How did Mike spend his vacation
A. He visited his friends. B. He took a holiday with his family.
C. He stayed at home.
( )5. What does the woman mean
A. She will take the train to London. B. She will get to London by plane.
C. She doesn’t like to go to London.
B)请听下面四段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分,共10分)
请听第一段对话,完成第6至第7小题。
( )6. What does Helen want to be in the future
A. An actor. B. A doctor. C. A teacher.
( )7. Why does David like to be a reporter
A. Because he likes to dance. B. Because he likes to talk.
C. Because he likes to travel.
请听第二段对话,完成第8至第9小题。
( )8. What are they going to make
A. A banana milk shake. B. An apple milk shake.
C. An orange milk shake.
( )9. How much yogurt do they need
A. Three cups of yogurt. B. Two cups of yogurt.
C. One cup of yogurt.
请听第三段对话,完成第10至第12小题。
( )10. Why is Dennis so happy
A. He made a new friend. B. He came back from America.
C. He knew how to play basketball.
( )11. Who is the tallest
A. Kate. B. Frank. C. Dennis.
( )12. How long does Frank practice basketball every day
A. For one hour. B. For two hours. C. For three hours.
请听第四段对话,完成第13至第15小题。
( )13. What does Mark think of the program
A. Boring. B. Interesting. C. Relaxing.
( )14. How often does Jane go to the cinema
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C.Three times a week.
( )15. What can we know from the conversation
A. Jane likes watching the program.
B. Mark watched the program with his mom.
C. They will go to Wanda Cinema together.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成5个句子,每个句子一空,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分,共5分)
16. The National Zoo first opened in .
17. You can easily get to the zoo by .
18. The zoo opens from 8:00 a. m. to .
19. On weekends and holidays the zoo is .
20. People can get into the zoo .
二、单词填空与词汇运用(每小题1分,共10分)
A、根据句意和所给音标或首字母提示,写出单词,使句子通顺、合理、意思完整。(共5分,每小题1分)
21.You will get bad grades in the exam / n les/ you work really hard now.
22. I'm sure my good friend can / k sept/ my birthday invitation.
23. Good friends should / tru l / care about each other.
24. Write down the key words on a piece of / pe p / when listening.
25. This book is really e . Students can learn a lot from it.
26. We all like Michael. He always tells jokes to make us l .
27. Yuan Longping is a very famous s .
28. In the UK, we call it“autumn”, but in America, they call it“f .”
29. Jim was ill and the doctor told him to take some m .
30. I feel so h that I would like something to eat.
三、单项填空(每小题1分,共10分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
( )31. We have to the books because there are not enough for everyone.
A. keep B. sell C.share D. take
( )32.—How do you like the Gannan tea-picking opera
—I love it. It's .
A. wonderful B. meaningless C. scary D. terrible
( )33.—Jake, can you tell me the between the two cups
—Sorry, I can't. I think they look the same.
A. difference B. activity C. problem D. surprise
( )34.—Did you go to the concert last weekend
—Yes, of course.You know Lang Lang plays the piano so .
A. quietly B. beautifully C. carefully D. clearly
( )35. It was difficult to climb the mountain, Sam got to the top.
A. or B. so C. and D. but
( )36.—Peter is in bad health now.
—Yeah, that's because he exercises in his free time
A. always B. usually C. sometimes D. hardly
( )37.—Are you available this Sunday
—Yes. I have special to do.
A. something B. everything C. anything D. nothing
( )38.— Are you kidding I can't believe it!
— I'm not a story. It really happened yesterday!
A. making up B. waking up C. staying up D. putting up
( )39.— Let's play a part in saving the earth!
— Good idea! I believe there will be trees and pollution.
A. less: more B. more; less C. fewer: more D. more: fewer
( )40.— Linda, which city do you want to travel to, Beijing or Shanghai
— Maybe I Beijing to meet my friends this time.
visit B. visited C. will visit D. was visiting
四、完形填空(每小题1分,共20分)
(A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意。然后从各小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分,共10分)
Make fridge magnets (冰箱贴) for hometown
Fridge magnets are a new business(商业). They are 41 with young people because they are usually not too expensive, easy to carry and show local (当地的) cultural characters.
Shen Ji, a girl from Deqing, Zhejiang, is doing this new business. She gave up her 42 in Hangzhou, and went back to her hometown to make fridge magnets. “My mother didn’t 43 with me on my idea to give up my job for a new business. ” Shen Ji says, who graduate (毕业) from the University of Manchester in the UK and worked in Hangzhou for 8 years. Her mother is running a homestay (民宿). 44 Shen Ji likes, she can work in the homestay. But Shen Ji refused and started her fridge magnet business, she took this business 45 .
In fact, Shen Ji is a fridge magnet lover herself. Wherever she travels, she will buy local fridge magnets. And she 46 the double-door fridge at her home with fridge magnets of different sizes and shapes, leaving nearly no more 47 .
Shen Ji’s hometown, Moganshan, is a great place of interest in China.“We need more 48 products(产品), and fridge magnets are one of them,” she says, “but there are 49 people making fridge magnets of Moganshan.” As a local, she has a deep understanding of her hometown culture. So she 50 to make more creative products like fridge magnets. Shen Ji hopes people can know more about her hometown through her work.
( )41.A. strict B. popular C. busy D. angry
( )42. A. hobby B. vacation C. job D. study
( )43. A. talk B. agree C. touch D. help
( )44. A. If B. Before C. Because D. Though
( )45. A. quickly B. luckily C. easily D. seriously
( )46. A. catches B. mixes C. covers D. paints
( )47. A. results B. stories C. questions D. space
( )48. A. cheap B. creative C. useful D. funny
( )49. A. few B. special C. smart D. different
( )50. A. asked B. replied C. decided D. waited
(B)请先阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空, 并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分,共10分)
restaurant plan first prepare big famous finally art until he
Do you like Lanzhou beef noodles They come from Lanzhou, Gansu province. As “China’s 51. noodles”, Lanzhou beef noodles have a long history that goes back to the Tang Dynasty (618-907). There are over 1,000 beef noodle 52. in Lanzhou, they sell over 1,000,000 bowls of beef noodles every day.
Making these noodles is like a(n) 53. . First, you need to pick the best ingredients (食材) and 54. the dough (面团) for the noodles. Then, hand-pull(手工拉)the noodles 55. they become soft and stretchy (有弹性的). 56. , add everything into a delicious beef soup.
Lanzhou beef noodles first became 57. in Lanzhou because of a cook named Ma Baozi.
58. talent in making delicious noodles and beef soup made many people have a try. From then on, Lanzhou noodles got more and more popular.
Looking to the future, Lanzhou 59. to make a special area(区域)called Lanzhou Beef Noodles Industrial Park. This area will bring many businesses together and give the noodles an even 60. name.
五、阅读理解(每小题2分,共40分)
A)阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能够回答问题的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题2分,共20分)
A
The movie is about the battle(战役) of Cheolwon, where the 63rd Army of the Chinese People's Volunteer Army (CPVA) got in the battlefield of Cheolwon in May 1951, just after a month-long battle, to fight against(与…作斗争) the United Nations Army (UNA).
( )61. When can you watch the movie
A.On September 28th. B. On October 28th. C. On August 28th. D.On November 28th.
( )62. Mr. And Mrs. Smith want to watch the movie. How much should they pay if booking on line
A. 40 yuan . B. 50 yuan. C. 72 yuan. D. 80 yuan.
( )63. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Jake is interested in sitcoms, he may enjoy this movie.
B. If you see this film, you can improve your English.
C. It took CPVA less than a month to fight against the United Nations Army.
D. The 63rd Army of the CPVA got in the battlefield of Cheolwon in May 1951.
B
Not travel long hours to somewhere far away, more Chinese travelers choose shorter trips close to home now! This is because they want to enjoy local life, not just rush through sightseeing (观光). Experts see this as a trend (趋势) for slower, deeper travel experiences.
Lin Keya from Urumqi, Xinjiang Uygur autonomous region(新疆维吾尔自治区), spent a few days in a village nearby for the National Day holiday this year. There, she woke to the sounds of roosters (公鸡) and slept peacefully under the moonlight. “Being in nature saved my tired heart,” Lin told Xinhua. The village was just a two-hour drive from her home.
Another traveler, Ms Peng, traveled with her family from Guiyang to Leshan. They are two cities in Southwest China. She said busy sightseeing tours only touch the surface (表面) - what people truly love now is deep trips. “Spending less time on the road gave us more time to enjoy the place,” said Peng.
This trend is growing because China is developing its high-speed rail network (高铁路网). It now covers over 46,000 kilometers and connects over 96 percent of cities with more than 500,000 people. And High-speed trains make it easier for old travelers to take relaxing trips.
( )64. Why do more Chinese travelers want to take shorter trips
A.Because they don’t have enough time.
B. Because they want to experience local life.
C. Because they hope to save money when travelling.
D. Because they don’t like to travel with others.
( )65. What can we learn from the passage
A. Experts think shorter trips are faster travel experiences.
B. Lin Keya enjoys the peace in a village nearby.
C. Ms Peng likes to take busy sightseeing tours.
D. Older travelers love travelling to somewhere far away.
( )66. What’s the main idea of the last paragraph
A. How do people spend their trips. B. What can travelers do during the trips. C. Why is the trend of shorter trips growing. D. Who may take shorter trips more often.
C
People build different kinds of houses, but do you know that some birds also like to make their“houses”look special
Bird nests (巢) are almost everywhere. People believed that birds made nests just for shelter (庇护所). They keep a mother’s eggs and baby birds from the cold, wind and enemies (天敌). However, a team of scientists from the University of St Andrews in the UK looked more into bird nests. They studied white-browed sparrow weavers (白眉麻雀织布鸟) in the Kalahari Desert in Africa and found that these birds have different nest-building styles from each other.
Some of the bird families made simple nests with no decorations (装饰). Others made nests with long openings to fly into. These can be 10 centimeters longer than those of simpler nests. This might not seem a lot to humans, but for these small birds, it’s a big difference.
More importantly, the bird families work together to build them, and each bird has its own special job. Some birds are great at collecting materials (收集材料), while others are good at building. Maria told The New York Times,“Once they started, everybody followed, younger birds watched and tried to copy the older ones. And now they have a tradition.”This teamwork helps them learn the ways to build special nests.
( )67. How does the writer start the passage
A. By telling a joke. B. By telling a story.
C. By asking a question. D. By showing numbers.
( )68. What does the underlined word“These”in Paragraph 3 refer to (指代)
A. Nests. B. Openings. C. Birds. D. Decorations.
( )69. What does the writer think of the birds
A. Smart and hard-working. B. Lucky and strong.
C. Lazy and special. D. Kind and funny.
( )70. What’s the main idea of this passage
A. Humans are better at building houses. B. Teamwork helps birds learn to build nests.
C. Birds like to make their houses special. D. Decorations are important for making nests.
D
If you order a meal from Shake Shack in Los Angeles, a robot on wheels (车轮)will bring your meal for you.
The fast food restaurant sells burgers, fries, milkshakes and more. It is working with Serve Robotics to bring customers (顾客)their orders with a robot. The robot can drive itself from the restaurant to their home.
When ordering a meal from Shake Shack online, customers in Los Angeles can choose a robot to bring their food. Customers can then follow the robot on its journey from the restaurant to their place on the mobile phone.
The robot is around a meter tall and looks like a box on four wheels, with two lights at the front which look like its eyes. According to reports, the robots can carry up to 23 kilograms at a top speed(速度)of 11 kilometers per hour — and they only travel on sidewalks (人行横道).
The restaurant puts food orders into a closed space, and only the customers can open it when the robot arrives at their home. The robots bring hundreds of orders to customers in Los Angeles every day. What’s more, they also work for many restaurants in other cities.
▲ Serve Robotics says that its robots finish their take-out work over 99% of the time. However, you can see people breaking the robots and taking away what’s inside of them in some online videos. Besides, the robots can also have problems traveling on broken ground, and some people are worried they might block (堵塞)sidewalks.
( )71. What can the robots do according to the passage
A. The robots can cook delicious food in restaurants.
B. The robots can drive itself to bring orders to customers.
C. The robots can use the mobile phone to order food.
D. The robots can follow the customers to their home.
( )72. What does the underlined word“journey”mean?
A. Way. B. Price. C. Food. D. Time.
( )73. Which of the following can be put in “ ▲ ”
A. The robots can do lots of work. B. There can be problems.
C. Serve Robotics makes online videos. D. The customers enjoy the food.
( )74. In which part of a newspaper can we find this passage?
A. Culture. B. Environment. C. Health. D. Science.
( )75. Which would be the best title for the passage
A. Food restaurants in Los Angeles. B. Customers order meals online.
C. Robots help bring food order. D. Robots travel on sidewalks.
B)请先阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后根据短文内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中使短文意思通顺结构完整, 并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。(每小题2分,共10分)
Over the break times between classes, Xiao Jingsheng from Beijing Shangdi Experimental School often ran to the toilet and back to class with no time for anything else. But now it is different. “ 76 ” said the 14-year-old.
Starting this term, students at primary and middle schools in Beijing have longer breaks between classes – they have 15 minutes now. 77
To let children to enjoy break-time activities, some schools mix break-time with labor(劳动) education by opening planting and animal breeding areas (饲养区).“We welcome new friends to our school – some ducks and rabbits!” said Zhang Boren, a 13-year-old from Beijing 101 Middle School Kuangda Campus. “ 78 Some play with these cute animals, while others exercise on the playground. We get closer to nature, which is relaxing.”
79 At the School Affiliated (附属学校) to Chaoyang Education Research Center, the ground floor of the teaching building opens a biology lab (生物实验室) for students to study the life cycles (生命周期) of animals and plants. The second-floor hallway is for free reading and chess games.
Making sure everyone is safe is also important. 80 “Sometimes the ground can be wet in the morning, so we tell the students to do more upper body exercises to avoid (避免) running and falling down,” said one PE teacher.
A. I don’t want to stay in the classroom after school. B. There are fewer students sitting at their desks. C. It is a time for students to enjoy themselves outdoors. D. Some schools also open up activity areas indoors. E. I can have more time to rest and share interesting things with my classmates. F. Students are interested in playing games with others in the classroom. G. P.E. teachers from the school keep an eye on students playing on the ground.
六、补全对话(每小题1分,共5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白中,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整,并在答题卡上将其选项涂黑。(有两个多余选项)(每空一句,每句1分)
A. Is it far from here B. You can take No.8 bus. C. Are you free this Saturday D. You can get to my house by bus. E. Would you like to come to my party F. I’m not busy on weekends. G. We plan to start at about five thirty.
A: This is Tom. May I speak to Betty
B: Hello, Tom. This is Betty.
A: Hi, Betty. 81
B: Yes. I'm free that day.
A: Great! I'm having a party this Saturday. I just
moved into a new house. 82
B: Sure, I'd love to. When will it start
A: 83
B: How can I get to your home
A: Oh. Go straight along Zhonghua Road. Then you will see a big supermarket on the left. My new house is across from the supermarket. 84
B: OK. Which bus should I take
A: 85
B: OK, I'll be there on time. See you then.
A: See you.

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