高三英语试题
注意事项：
1．答卷前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
2．答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试卷上的作答一律无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What does Shirley suggest the man do
A.Go to the library. B.See an exhibition. C.Study for the exam.
2.What does the man imply about the woman
A.She is careless with money.
B.She needs to work much harder.
C.She has to make a quick decision.
3.How does Mia lose weight
A.She is on a diet. B.She exercises a lot.
C.She loses her appetite.
4.Why did the woman go to Italy
A.To take a business trip. B.To visit her family.
C.To go sightseeing
5.Where are the speakers
A.In an office. B.At a tea house. C.At a repair shop.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6.When did Jenny leave the office
A.At 6:00. B.At 6:30. C.At 7:00.
7.How will Phoebe deal with the problem
A.Quit her present job. B.Leave it to her husband.
C.Have a word with her boss.
听第7段材料，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8.What does the woman ask James to do
A.Plan a journey. B.Cut down expenses.
C.Prepare a birthday party.
9.How did James get to Mike's house
A.On foot. B.By bike. C.By car.
10.What are the speakers going to do together
A.Make an online purchase. B.Go to a shopping mall. C.Watch a film.
听第8段材料，回答第11至第13三个小题。
11.Which section of the newspaper does Susan like to read
A.Sports section. B.Financial section. C.Entertainment section.
12.Why does Susan turn down Fred's invitation
A.She has to work overtime.
B.She dislikes going to the cafe.
C.She already has an appointment.
13.What are the speakers mainly talking about
A.New hobbies. B.Ways to beat stress. C.Weekend plans.
听第9段材料，回答第14至第16三个小题。
14.What do we know about Peter
A.He is a college student. B.He has no interest in cars.
C.He wants to be an electrical engineer.
15.What is Mr. Wilson's attitude toward Peter's decision
A.Ambiguous. B.Supportive. C.Disapproving.
16.What does Mr. Wilson expect Peter to do
A.Enrich his life experience. B.Continue further education.
C.Go into his family business.
听第10段材料，回答第17至第20四个小题。
18.Why is the Thai New Year holiday mentioned
A. To explain its traditions and origin.
B.To illustrate its increase in popularity.
C.To show the importance of fruit carving.
19.Where did the idea of fruit carving begin
A.In Thailand. B.In China. C.In Japan.
20.What will the speaker do next
A.Teach fruit carving. B.Display her artistic work.
C.Paint a picture of leaves.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Last August, city officials interviewed about 500 residents to find out people's attitudes to protecting the environment and what actions they had taken. Here are the results:
As the diagram show, the percentage of those who felt that they needed to help protect the environment is as high as 96%. Very few (4%) felt it was not Is it necessary to help protect the necessary. More than half of those who took part in the survey had done four of the five activities in the past month. Around 90% had tried to recycle waste such as glass, metal and paper, and more than two thirds (70%) had tried to cut back on the use of disposable packaging, such as plastic honey bottles, and butter and yogurt containers. Also, the majority of residents had cycled or walked.
Unfortunately, not as many who took part had taken action to save water and energy in their homes. Just under 40% (38%) tried to save water when they were washing dishes or taking showers. Just over half (51%) tried to save energy by reducing the use of air conditioning or turning off lights.
To sum up, it seems that almost all who took part understood the need to help take care of the environment. Most of them tried to recycle waste, ride bikes or walk, and reduce the use of disposable packaging. However, not as many were saving water and energy. This indicates that the residents needed to pay more attention to these two activities.
21.The residents interviewed in the survey were .
A.less than 15 years old B.from the countryside
C.important city officials D.15 years of age and older
22.What percentage of residents tried to reduce the use of air conditioning or light
A.38%. B.51%. C.70%. D.90%.
23.Which activity had the highest participation rate according to the survey
A.Saving water at home.
B.Recycling waste materials.
C.Reducing disposable packaging use.
D.Cycling or walking instead of driving.
B
College professors these days face an ever-higher bar to grab the attention of their students. Yet, Tatiana Erukhimova, who teaches physics at Texas A&M University in the USA, has managed to get her students excited about science.
Known as "Dr. Tatiana", the professor performs physics tricks with boundless energy and enthusiasm. Videos of her theatrical demonstrations have racked up hundreds of millions of views across social media platforms. In the videos, Erukhimova uses a range of everyday objects in her experiments, from ping pong balls and toilet paper to bicycle wheels and hair dryers.
It's clear she knows what it takes to get young people excited about a hard science. But it isn't always that way. When she first started teaching college freshman classes almost two decades ago, she struggled to grab the attention of her younger students. She was used to teaching juniors（大三学生）and found it easier to teach them.＂By junior year,students enrolled in physics are determined to learn," she says. "But when it comes to teaching a large lecture hall of 100-plus first-year students, first impressions are important. Unfortunately, I did not grab their attention-that was my mistakes."
By the second semester, she found her footing, adjusting her approach to make her lecture halls feel smaller and get her students engaged. "Talk to your students before and after class. Walk up and down the stairs when you teach your class rather than stay on the stage," she says.“And add showy demonstration, which helps students connect the abstract concepts with real life."
Erukhimova has earned more than just recognition on social media. In October 2023, she was honored with a national award for science outreach "for leadership in bringing the excitement of physics through innovative education programs."
24.What can we infer about Erukhimova from the first two paragraphs
A.She likes to play a trick on her students.
B.She wants to be popular on social media.
C.She excites widespread interest in science.
D.She is passionate about making online videos.
25.What's the probable meaning of the underlined words "racked up" in paragraph 2
A.Gained. B.Controlled. C.Protected. D.Replaced.
26.Why did Erukhimova find it easier to teach juniors
A.Juniors could study entirely on their own.
B.She used simpler teaching methods for juniors.
C.She didn't have to worry about first impressions.
D.Juniors showed a higher level of commitment to learning.
27.How did Erukhimova find her footing in the second semester
A.By improving her communication skills.
B.By following a traditional teaching method.
C.By reducing the number of students in the class.
D.By making herself approachable and her teaching engaging.
C
Emotional farewells（再见）are a common sight at airports, but travelers leaving the New Zealand city of Dunedin will have to be quick. A new three-minute time limit on goodbye hugs in the airport's drop-off area is intended to prevent long hugs from causing traffic jams. Signs outside the terminal（航空站）war，“Max hug time：three minutes＂，adding that those seeking "fonder farewells" should head to the airport's parking lot instead.
The hug limit was set to "keep things moving smoothly" in there designed drop-off area outside the airport, according to Dan De Bono, CEO of Dunedin Airport. It was the airport's way of reminding people that the zone was for "quick farewells" only.
The signs had been discussed by many social media users. "We were accused of not respecting basic human rights. How dare we limit how long someone can have a hug for " said De Bono, adding that others had welcomed the change.
The signs were meant as an alternative to those at other airports warning drivers of their illegally parked cars or fines for parking in drop-off areas. Some in Britain have charged fees for all drop-offs-however brief. Dunedin Airport modest terminal serving a city of 135,000 people on New Zealand's South Island preferred an unusual approach. "Three minutes was plenty of time to pull up, say farewell to your loved ones, and move on," said De Bono. "The time limit is really a nicer way of saying, you know, 'Get on with it. "
A 20-second hug is long enough to release your emotions in a health-promoting way, according to De Bono. "Anything longer is really awkward. But passengers need not worry unnecessarily about it. We do not have hug police," said De Bono. Visitors might, however, be asked to move their long hugs to the parking lot, where they can hug each other free of charge for up to 15 minutes.
28.Why did Dunedin Airport put a three-minute hug limit
A.To improve traffic flow. B.To increase parking fees.
C.To serve passengers better. D.To prevent emotional goodbyes.
29.How did the social media users react to the hug limit
A.They tried to understand it.
B.They took the airport to court.
C.They had mixed opinions about it.
D.They offered possible alternatives.
30.What is implied about the hug limit in paragraph 4
A.It seems acceptable. B.It is a flexible approach.
C.It needs to be reconsidered. D. It has proved to be effective.
31.What did Dan De Bobo think of brief goodbye hugs
A.Totally unnecessary. B.Socially embarrassing.
C.Definitely comforting. D.Emotionally sufficient.
D
Microscopic pieces of plastic are everywhere. Now, they've been found in bottled water in concentrations 10 to 100 times more than previously estimated. Researchers found roughly 240,000 detectable plastic particles（微粒）in a typical liter of bottled water．
About 10% of the detected plastic particles were microplastics, and the other 90% were nanoplastics. Microplastics are between 5 millimeters and 1 micrometer; nanoplastics are particles less than 1 micrometer in size. For context, a human hair is about 70 micrometers thick. Microplastics have already been found in people's lungs and blood.
Nanoplastics could be even more dangerous than microplastics because when inside the human body, “the smaller it goes, the easier for it to be misidentified as the natural component of the cell," says Wei Min, a professor of chemistry at Columbia University.
The International Bottled Water Association (IBWA) said in a statement that it has had“very limited notice and time" to review the study. But the group said the new detection method “needs to be fully reviewed by the scientific community and more research needs to be done to develop standardized methods for measuring and quantifying nanoplastics in our environment." The association said there is "no scientific agreement on the potential health impacts of nano-and-microplastic particles."
The particles they could identify accounted for only 10% of total particles they found-the rest could be minerals, other types of plastics, or something else, says Beizhan Yan, a research professor and co-author on the study. They hope the research will lead to a better understanding of how much plastic humans are regularly putting into their bodies and its effects.
Yan says they plan future research employing the same technology to look at plastic particles in tap water, in the air, in food and in human tissues. “This is basically just to open a new window for us to see what was this invisible world before."
32. What is the author's purpose in mentioning human hair in paragraph 2
A.To show the harm of plastic particles.
B.To prove plastic particles are everywhere.
C.To stress the source of plastic particles.
D.To illustrate the size of plastic particles.
33.Why are nanoplastics more dangerous than microplastics
A.They are more difficult to remove.
B.They are more poisonous to humans.
C.They are more likely to pass as harmless.
D.They are more changeable than microplastics.
34.What is IBWA's attitude to the study
A.Indifferent. B.Skeptical. C.Supportive. D.Negative.
35.What is Beizhan Yan's future research plan
A.To find ways to reduce plastic particles.
B.To remove plastic particles from bottled water.
C.To prove that plastic particles are not harmful.
D.To study plastic particles in different substances.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Chess has been around for over a thousand years, and is played by millions of people around the world. It looks simple. 36 If you want to become a good chess player, you need to do many things. Of course, it will bring you many benefits along the way.
Playing chess requires a great deal of concentration, as players need to expect their opponents’ moves and make the best possible move in response. A study found that playing chess can lead to better school performance in areas such as reading and math. 37
Chess players are required to remember a lot of information. They need to remember the rules of the game. 38 This, according to The Science Times, can improve memory functions.
39 According to a study, chess leads its players to creative thinking of their own. This can help players develop their thinking skills and come up with new solutions to problems in life.This is true for both children and adults.
Chess is not a game for impatient people. This game requires players to spend a lot of time thinking and to be very patient in the face of challenges. 40 There are skills and ways to develop patience that you can use.
Whether you are an experienced player or a beginner, there is no better time to start playing chess than now.
A.However, it is not an easy activity.
B.There are many reasons for you to start playing chess.
C.Perhaps this is why the game is recommended to students.
D.Playing chess can reduce the risk of developing serious brain illnesses.
E. If you are worried you aren't patient enough for this game, don't worry.
F.Chess requires players to think creatively to come up with new strategies.
G. They also need to remember earlier moves and possible strategies during play.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
＂I am ahead of my time,＂says Dr. William Farber, shortly after performing acupuncture（针灸）on a rabbit.＂I am not 41 ＂Some of his coworkers laugh at his unusual 42 but Farber is certain he'll have the last laugh. He's one of a small number of American veterinarians（兽医）now 43 ＂holistic＂medicine-combining traditional Western treatments with acupuncture and herbal medicine.
Farber started out as a conventional veterinarian after 44 from Colorado University.He became interested in alternative treatments 20 years ago when he 45 a terrible back pain.He tried muscle-relaxing drugs but found little 46 . Then he tried acupuncture, an ancient Chinese practice, and was amazed that he 47 after two or three treatments. What worked on a veterinarian seemed likely to work on his 48 .So,after studying the techniques for a couple of years,he began 49 them to pets.
Leigh Tindale's dog Charlie had a serious heart 50 .After Charlie had a heart attack, Tindale says,she was 51 to put him to sleep, but Farber's treatments 52 her dog's suffering so much that she was able to keep him alive for an additional five months.
Farber is certain that the holistic approach will grow more 53 with time, and if the past is any indication, he may be right: Since 1982, membership in the American Holistic Veterinary Medical Association has 54 from 30 to over 700. "Sometimes it surprises me that it works so well," he says.“I will do anything to help a/an 55 .That's my job."
41.A.brave B.crazy C.clever D.funny
42.A.hobbies B.comments C.experiences D.methods
43.A.analyzing B.explaining C.practicing D.treating
44.A.graduating B.escaping C.benefiting D.learning
45.A.came across B.took up C.suffered from D.turned down
46.A.advice B.choice C.relief D.difficulty
47.A.cheered B.improved C.delayed D.paused
48.A.friends B.children C.relatives D.patients
49.A.delivering B.lending C.mailing D.offering
50.A.problem B.beating C.experiment D.situation
51.A.excited B.confused C.satisfied D.prepared
52.A.cured B.eased C.replaced D.protected
53.A.accurate B.different C.popular D.normal
54.A.existed B.floated C.grown D.decreased
55.A.animal B.expert C.hospital D.visitor
第二节（共10小题；每小题15分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
More than 7 million Internet users were attracted by a live stream 56 (theme)“When technology meets the beauty of traditional opera" this year.One of the highlights was how nearly 50 classic operas 57 (present) to audiences in a new way by making use of diverse digital technologies. In the comment section of the live stream, many people expressed their praise 58the beauty of traditional Chinese opera.
In theaters, demand for excellent operas 59 have been updated by VR technology has been rising. You cannot buy a ticket if you hesitate for even 60 second.
Many attempts have been made to achieve "opera plus technology", but only 61(depend) on technology is not enough to promote traditional opera. How to 62 (creative)write stories suitable for today's tastes is another important issue.
The growing interest in Yue Opera comes from the huge 63 (succeed) of New Dragon Gate Inn. The show, adapted from the 1992 classic action movie of the same name while also adding new elements to the story, wins young 64 (audiences) hearts easily.
Technology and creativity have injected（注入）new life into traditional Chinese opera.However,challenges still cxist, including the unsuitable use of technology on stage that 65 (harm) the atmosphere of opera. But it's important to remember that “Change brings prosperity while stagnation（停滞）leads to decline.”
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，为更好地培养同学们学习英语的兴趣，外教Mrs. White 就开展哪些课外（extracurricular）活动向你们征求意见。请你给外教写一封邮件，内容包括：
1．你的建议：
2．你的理由。
注意：
1．写作词数应为80个左右：
2．请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Dear Mrs. White, Yours, Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I liked living in a mess. The desk, which should have been clear for my homework,was always filed with empty milk bottles, old magazines, and Post-it notes. My floor seemed to swallow anything that entered my room. Mom always insisted that I clean my room. I'd respond with a nod, but never actually did it. She ended up having to tidy up herself. But no matter how much she cleaned, I always seemed to turn it into a mess again within days.
One weekend afternoon, I was lying in bed, lost in a book while my room was a total mess.Clothes were piled on the chair,snack wrappers littered the floor, and the desk was entirely hidden beneath my school books. I was comfortably immersed in（沉浸在）my chaos-until the phone rang. It was my best friend Felix. "Hey! How about playing chess together "
"Good ideal Just come over!" I replied, picturing us laughing and enjoying cach other's company. However, as soon as I hung up the phone, reality hit me like a ton of bricks: my room was an absolute disaster!
I didn't want my friend to see my room like this. My mind raced-should I call Felix back and tell him I am too busy Wouldn't it be better to spare him from the horror of stepping into my disaster zone But I felt so guilty at the thought of lying to my best friend just because it looked as if a tomato had hit my room.
I decided to tidy up my room. With only half an hour before Felix arrived, I felt the pressure increasing. I thought about asking someone for help, so I stepped out of my room. I found my brother playing video games and my dad working. Only Mom seemed to have a moment to spare. When I approached her with my request, she turned me down. “You can handle it on your own. Just learn to be independent," she said gently.
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I knew there was no way out this time. _______________________________________________
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Just as I finished cleaning, I heard a knock on the door. _________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________________________高三英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1—5 CABCA 6—10 BCBCA 11—15 CCBAB 16—20 ACCBA
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21—23 DBB 24—27 CADD 28—31 ACAD 32—35 DCBD
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36—40 ACGFE
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
41—45 BDCAC 46—50 CBDDA 51—55 DBCCA
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. themed 57. were presented 58. for 59. that/which 60. a
61. depending 62. creatively 63. success 64. audiences’ 65. harms
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
评分原则：
1. 本题总分为15分，按三个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于60，从总分中减去2分。
第三档（11-15分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整，条理清楚；
·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（6-10分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；
·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第一档（1-5分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整；
·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
0分
未能传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。
第二节 (满分25分)
One possible version:
Paragraph 1: I knew there was no way out this time. So I walked back to my room. The chaos around me weighed heavily on my mind. Each item reminded me of the work I had to do. Time was running out, and I knew I had to get it together and take action. I picked up the clothes from the chair and put them into the laundry basket. Then I threw the snack wrappers into the trash can and piled my school works. I wiped the dust off the desk. It felt good to see some progress.
Paragraph 2: Just as I finished cleaning, I heard a knock on the door. It was Felix. After greeting my family, he walked into my room with me. As he stepped inside, he was surprised at how tidy it looked. Embarrassment washed over me as I explained that my room had been a total mess before this clean-up. I finally decided to take charge of the chaos. Felix remarked on how impressive it was to see me managing my space, admiring my newfound independence. A strong feeling of pride welled inside me.
评分原则：
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 所续写短文的词数应为150左右（词数少于120的，从总分中减去2分）。
4. 阅卷评分时，主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）故事发展的合理性和上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（21-25分）
与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；
内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息；
所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16-20分）
与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；
内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息；
所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11-15分）
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息；
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
第二档（6-10分）
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
写出了一些有关内容，较少利用了文中的关键信息；
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达；
较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1-5分）
与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；
产出内容太少，很少利用了文中的关键信息；
语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；
缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷，内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力录音原文
Text 1 复习功课
M: We’re going to see the art exhibition tonight. Would you like to join us, Shirley
W: Well, I will go to the library to borrow some books after class. The final exam is coming soon. You’d better spend more time on your lessons.
Text 2 花钱没有计划
W: I certainly would like to buy the brown suit I saw in the department store, but I don’t have enough money.
M: Well, if you planned the spending of your money more carefully, you would be able to buy it.
Text 3 瘦身原因
W: It seems that Mia has lost a lot of weight. Is she on a diet
M: It is actually not. She’s been bitten by the fitness bug—she spends hours at the gym every day.
W: No wonder. I’ve dropped some weight lately too. But I suffered from loss of appetite.
Text 4 询问是否去过国外
W: Have you ever been abroad
M: Yes, I have. I went to Italy last year for a business trip. How about you
W: What a coincidence! I visited Venice in Italy with my family. I loved riding the long boat along the canals while watching Italian people live their daily lives.
Text 5无所事事
W: I just twiddle my thumbs while you work out how the computer works. Do you know what’s a good solution to stop me from being bored
M: Do something! Like making your colleague a nice cup of tea or reading aloud the notice from the HR department.
Text 6想申请调整下班时间
M: Phoebe, you look worried. Is everything OK
W: Well, my new boss is expecting us to do some extra work and leave at 6 o’clock in the evening. But I have to pick up my children from school because my husband can’t spare any time to do it. Anyway, I don’t want to quit my job.
M: Oh, that’s really a problem. My friend Jenny had a similar problem last year. Her boss asked them to get off work at 7:00.
W: How did she settle it
M: She told her boss about it. He said he hadn’t realized leaving work one hour late would make much trouble and he agreed that she could work overtime for half an hour.
W: That’s great. Perhaps I should deal with it the same way.
Text 7节省开支
W: James, could you spare a few minutes I need to talk to you.
M: Yeah, what’s up
W: You know, the cost of living has risen sharply recently. The price of petrol is ridiculously high. I hope you can stop using the car for short journeys. Mike’s house is only 20 minutes’ walk away from here. It won’t hurt you to walk there. Or you can ride your bike.
M: I understand, but I had to get there quickly. Otherwise, we wouldn’t have made it in time to reach the cinema.
W: Perhaps you should manage your time a little better next time.
M: I shall certainly try.
W: By the way, it’s your father’s birthday next month. How about we prepare a gift for him
M: Great idea. Shall we get a new tie for him in the new shopping mall
W: Physical shops usually suffer from a limited choice. Let’s look for some ties on the Internet stores. We can select from a wide range of products from all over the world.
M: Awesome.
Text 8 减压方式
M: What’s in your hand, Susan
W: Sunday papers. I usually read them after coming back home from work.
M: Really I also like reading newspapers, especially the sports and financial parts. Why do you read them
W: As you know, these papers are famous for their breaking entertainment news. So I will feel relaxed after grasping some information I am interested in.
M: I got your meaning. Reading is your own solution to deal with pressure from busy tasks.
W: Correct! Sometimes I go skiing with my friends. What about you, Fred
M: I often have some coffee in the cafe near our dorm when I am overtired. Tasting the delicious coffee and enjoying the sweet music in the cafe is wonderful for me. Would you like to go to the cafe with me if you don’t have any plans for this Saturday
W: Uh, but I’ve already promised to go to the cinema with my friends. Let’s make it another time.
M: All right.
Text 9 职业规划
W: Has your son chosen his career yet, Mr. Wilson
M: Yes. He’s made up his mind to be an engineer.
W: Oh! That’s very interesting. There are several kinds of engineers, such as electrical engineers, chemical engineers and so on. I know Peter shows great interest in cars. Is he going to be a mechanical engineer
M: No, Peter is taking a general course on civil engineering at the university. You know—a civil engineer is a man who makes roads and bridges, that sort of thing. When he finishes the course, he’ll take a special course on water supply.
W: That sounds amazing! Do you expect him to go into your family business
M: Er, he plans to take a job abroad after finishing his education. You know, there are a lot of opportunities for water supply engineers, especially in most underdeveloped countries.
W:Are you in favor of his decision
M:Why not In the ever-changing world, the significance of broadening one’s horizons and enriching knowledge cannot be overstated. It is not merely about acquiring information or learning new concepts; it’s about understanding the world better, connecting with different cultures, and developing a mindset that is open and inclusive.
Text 10 水果雕刻艺术
W: Welcome to the cooking demonstration. Tonight, I’m going to introduce the art of Thai fruit carving. When it comes to Thai fruits, they’re quite often transformed into a piece of art. I really hope tonight’s talk will open the door to a new culture for you. Thailand is known for its rich culture and traditions, and one of the most fascinating aspects of Thai culture is the art of fruit carving. Fruit carving is an important part of the Thai New Year holiday table, but you might see fruit carvings at other holidays like Christmas or the Floating Lantern Festival. This ancient art form dates back to the 14th century, and it has been passed down from generation to generation. Fruit carving is practiced in both Thailand and Japan, but the earliest known fruit carving was found in China. Fruits were carved both for decorative purposes and for the food to look more appealing before it was eaten. Thai fruit carving is not only a beautiful art form, but it is also a way to celebrate the beauty and abundance of nature. Now, if you just pick up the cucumber in front of you and one of the medium-sized knives, I’ll show you how to turn that boring cucumber into a beautiful leaf.
