初2023级九上开学定时训练
英语试题
（全卷共九个大题，满分150分，考试时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1．试题的答案书写在答题卡上，不得在试题卷上直接作答。
2．作答前认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
第Ⅰ卷（共100分）
I. 听力测试。（共35分）
第一节（每小题1分，共6分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Yes, he can. B. No problem. C. No, she couldn’t.
2. A. I’m sorry. B. I see. C. You’re welcome.
3. A. Yes, she has. B. No, he didn’t. C. Yes, please.
4. A. Never mind. B. That’s too noisy. C. Good idea.
5. A. I did my homework. B. I was watching TV. C. I am sleeping.
6. A. Thank you. B. What a pity! C. Not at all.
第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /'p :(r) f kt/. B. /'p : rsn/. C. /p 'la t/.
8. A. By getting an X-ray. B. By putting a bandage. C. By taking the medicine.
9. A. In the library. B. At the cinema. C. In a yard sale.
10. A. Because she saved an old man.
B. Because she studied for a test.
C. Because she prepared for a party.
11. A. Helen. B. Frank. C. Jessica.
12. A. B. C.
第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第13和14小题。
13. Who is Peter
A. A biology teacher. B. A tour guide. C. A panda keeper.
14. How tall are the pandas
A. About 150 cm. B. About 115cm. C. About 100cm.
听第二段材料，回答第15和16小题。
15. When is the yard sale
A. Tomorrow. B. Next week. C. Next month.
16. What should they prepare to do first
A. Put up posters. B. Choose the old things. C. Choose a place.
第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. What activity did the girl take part in
A. Running. B. Volunteering. C. Reporting.
18. When did the race begin
A. At 7:00 a.m. B. At 7:30 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m.
19. How did they feel after the race
A. Great. B. Relaxed. C. Unhappy.
20. Why did they join in the race
A. To win the first prize. B. To do volunteer work. C. To keep healthy and be happy.
第五节 （每小题2分，共8分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的广播内容，在横线处补全笔记。每空1词，并把答案写在答题卡上对应的位置。
21. Great ideas for
Stay hopeful. 22. A hopeful attitude will help you problems.
Celebrate every success. It makes you more confident.
Be with your good friends. 23. A good friend your hand and touches your heart.
24. Be to others Small acts of kindness bring a big difference.
Ⅱ. 语法选择。 (每小题1分，共10分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
In a warm nest in a big tree, there lived a little bird named Sky. He was young and always wanted to know about the world outside. Every day, 25 bird watched other big birds flying freely. “I want to fly like them!” he thought.
One sunny morning, Sky decided to try flying. His heart beat fast— 26 but a little scared. He stood at the nest’s edge(边缘). His mother said softly, “You can 27 it! Open your wings(翅膀) and try!”
Sky took a deep breath. He opened his wings and jumped into the air. At 28 , it worked! But then strong wind pushed 29 sideways. Sky got scared. He flapped(扇动) his wings hard, but couldn’t fly well.
When he almost fell, he remembered his 30 words. He calmed down, kept his wings straight, and turned slowly. Soon, he flew 31 !
Flying higher Sky saw beautiful things below: colorful flowers, green fields, and a shiny river. “Wow!” he cried 32 .
After some time, Sky flew back 33 home. His mother smiled. “Great job! Your first flight is good!” she said.
From that day, Sky became braver than before. He flew over the forest, made new friends, and flew to many places. He learned: 34 you try bravely, you can do anything!
25. A. the B. a C. an
26. A. excited B. excite C. exciting
27. A. did B. do C. does
28. A. once B. firstly C. first
29. A. him B. she C. he
30. A. mother’s B. mother C. mothers
31. A. good B. better C. best
32. A. happy B. unhappy C. happily
33. A. to B. for C. /
34. A. Whether B. If C. Though
III. 完形填空。(每小题1.5分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Hello, I’m Zoe. When I was a kid, my 35 taught me about gardening. We planted carrots, strawberries, and roses in her backyard, and it was so much fun! Over the years, gardening has brought our family closer and 36 many sweet memories.
37 gardening is interesting, it’s full of challenges. Some mistakes, like overwatering the plants, not giving them enough sunlight, or forgetting to take care of the soil, can make me feel
38 . However, I learn from 39 , read books and ask my grandma for help. Day by day, I have done well 40 gardening.
Gardening is more than just a hobby for me. It provides me with fresh food. The tomatoes taste better than 41 from the market. When I’m in the garden, I forget about everything else. It brings me peace and joy when I 42 plants, feel the soil, and watch them grow. Gardening
43 provides me with a real way to protect the environment. We collect rain to save water, see bees visit our flowers, and improve the health of soil. And gardening is like 44 with nature. I can design my garden and make it a beautiful picture. Every time I work in the garden, I feel like an artist!
35. A. grandma B. grandpa C. sister D. brother
36. A. taken B. lost C. created D. invented
37. A. So B. Because C. Though D. But
38. A. happy B. sad C. relaxed D. bored
39. A. ways B. problems C. results D. mistakes
40. A. in B. on C. at D. to
41. A. this B. that C. these D. those
42. A. look out B. look up C. care for D. care about
43. A. maybe B. also C. still D. hardly
44. A. dancing B. singing C. painting D. living
IV．阅读理解。（每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
First aid(急救) is necessary for everyone in saving life. There are many first aid skills. Let’s learn about three basic ways.
CPR: CPR is done when someone is breathing hard or heartbeat has stopped.
○If the heartbeat stops, push hard on the chest(胸部) at a rate of 100-120 per minute, pushing down at least 5 cm for adults.
○Open the airway by putting the head back.
○Give artificial respiration(人工呼吸).
Heimlich Maneuver: If something is stuck in one’s throat, Heimlich Maneuver is useful.
○Stand behind the person and put your arms around his waist.
○Push upwards and inwards quickly near his navel(肚脐).
○Repeat until the object is forced out.
Basic Wound(伤口) Care:
○Stop bleeding by pressing hard on the wound with a bandage. For artery bleeding, press the nearby heart end of the artery.
○If bleeding continues, raise the wound above the heart level.
45. If you find a man lying on the side of the road, and he is breathing hard, what will you do
A. B. C. D.
46. When will you stop repeating pushing upwards and inwards quickly near the navel
A. When the bleeding stops. B. When the man can move his leg.
C. When the man is brought back to life. D. When the object is forced out.
47. In which part of a website will you probably read the passage
A. Culture. B. News. C. Health. D. Sports.
B
After running away from the land of small people, my ship was caught in a terrible storm and hit a rocky shore(岸). When I woke up, I found myself in a country where everything was so huge! The grass was as tall as forest trees, and ants were the size of dogs. Suddenly, the earth began to tremble—a farmer, as tall as a mountain, walked up to me! To my surprise, he picked me up gently with two fingers and put me in his pocket.
The farmer carried me to his house. His children shouted with excitement, thinking I was a living toy. The youngest boy tried to grab(抓住) me, but I quickly cried, “Please, kind sir!” The family were surprised. “It speaks!” said the farmer’s wife. From that day, they called me “Grildrig” (meaning “little doll”). The farmer’s daughter, Glumdalclitch, a kind girl of nine, became my protector. She made small clothes for me and taught me their language.
One day, the farmer said, “Grildrig should make money!” He built a wooden stage and took me to the market. People paid money to watch me perform. The farmer asked me to work so hard that I had almost no rest. Before long, the queen herself sent for me. At the palace, I ate from golden plates and slept on silk cushions(垫子). But I felt that danger was somewhere: a monkey once carried me to the rooftop(屋顶), and teacups almost drowned(淹死) me. I missed home but saw no way to run away.
(Selected from Gulliver’s Travels)
48. What did Gulliver think of the country when he arrived there
A. It was very small and quiet. B. Everything was very large.
C. The people were very friendly. D. The weather was terrible.
49. The word “tremble” in Paragraph 1 means “________”.
A. run B. open C. stop D. shake
50. What is the right order of the events according to the passage
①The queen invited Gulliver to the palace.
②The farmer took Gulliver home.
③Gulliver performed at the market to make money.
④Glumdalclitch cared for Gulliver.
A. ②④③① B. ②①④③ C. ③②④① D. ④③①②
51. What can we infer(推断) from the passage
A. Gulliver wanted to become famous.
B. Glumdalclitch was a very kind girl.
C. Gulliver enjoyed his rich life in the palace.
D. The farmer was interested in making money.
C
①What’s more fun than “eating” a train Liziba Station has become a very popular place in Chongqing. It is so special that it appears on the city’s famous Must-See List!
②When the light rail train comes very close to the buildings, people quickly open their mouths wide. If you take the photo at just the right time, it looks like the train is going into their mouths! Every day, many happy visitors come here for a unique(独特的) photo chance.Some people make funny faces, like they are eating the train. Others laugh when they see how silly the photos look. Children especially enjoy this fun activity. If you visit Chongqing, don’t miss it!
③Besides taking funny photos, Chongqing is also famous for its food. When the American internet star “Speed”(known as “Jiakangge” in China for his energetic style) visited Chongqing. When he saw “eating” a train, he shouted, “Wow! The train is inside a building!” At the same time, his video made everyone excited. After that, he tried the spicy hotpot. Tears ran down his face as he shouted, “My mouth is on fire... but I love it!” His fans loved watching his challenge. “Come to try it if you brave enough!” he told his followers.
④Not all Chongqing food makes you cry, though. Rongchang Braised Goose, a traditional dish from Chongqing, China, has a history of over 300 years. Jiang Lin, a farmer-turned-influencer from Rongchang, saw this as a chance to share his hometown’s food with the world. Although Jiang’s English was poor, he used translation tools(翻译工具) to learn phrases like “not spicy” and “very tasty” to introduce this traditional dish. Thanks to him, Speed tried Rongchang Braised Goose and loved it. Then, the sales of this dish jumped by 105%, and many businesses doubled their orders.
Why not plan a trip Chongqing is waiting to surprise you!
What makes Liziba Station so famous in Chongqing
It serves all kinds of delicious local food.
People can take train-eating photos there.
It has the fastest light rail in Chongqing.
It is the oldest and biggest one in the city.
53. What does the underlined word he refer to
A. An American internet star. B. A cook from Rongchang.
C. A traditional food maker. D. A hotpot lover in China.
54. Why did the sales of Rongchang Braised Goose increase
A. Because it became cheaper. B. Because Speed tried and liked it.
C. Because it is not spicy. D. Because it has a long history.
55. What’s the best title of this passage
A. An American Star’s Fun Trip B. Great Places and Good Food
C. A Unique Train in Chongqing .D. The History of Braised Goose
D
①You might see everything you see or hear on the Internet makes you more sure of what you already think. If this happens, be careful! You might be in something called an information cocoon(茧房) —a place where your own ideas keep coming back to you.
②This isn’t something new. Think about ancient times when people sat around a campfire. They only shared stories that their group believed and agreed with. Today, the Internet and social media are like our modern campfire. They connect people all over the world. But just like the old campfire, they also let people share and hear the ideas they already like.
③You might have noticed that social media ads seem to know what you like. This happens because of a computer program called algorithms(算法). Algorithms are like sets of rules that help computers do things. Every time you click(点击) likes or share something, you leave a “digital footprint(数字脚印)”. This helps algorithms learn what you like. Then they show you more of the same kind of information.
④Information cocoons can make you feel good, but they also have some bad results.
⑤When you only see similar opinions, it’s hard to accept different views. This can make it hard for us to understand people who think differently.
⑥Information cocoons can also lead to more arguments and worries among people. This often makes different groups in society disagree with or do not trust each other even more. ▲
⑦The good news is that there are ways to break out of the information cocoon. One important thing is to look for different kinds of information. Also, it’s important to learn how to think critically(批判地). This means checking the facts and being open to changing your mind.
⑧By doing these things, you can break out of the information cocoon and see a wider world!
56. Why does the writer mention “algorithms” in Paragraph 3
A. To say algorithms should not be used on social media.
B. To talk about how algorithms can be bad for people.
C. To tell the story of how algorithms were invented.
D. To explain how social media ads show what you like.
57. Which sentence can be put in the ▲
A. But the Internet can also be good.
B. Some think algorithms are not safe to use.
C. This is why we need to solve this problem.
D. Many people like seeing the same things online.
58. What’s the best structure of this passage
59. What’s the writer’s attitude(态度) towards the information cocoon
A. Serious and angry. B. Worried but hopeful.
C. Happy and encouraging. D. Scared but meaningful.
V．口语应用。（每小题2分，共10分）
阅读下面对话，从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A. Who wrote it B. You’re good at drawing. C. I have a different opinion. D. Have you heard of the book The Dot E. I should start by drawing something. F. She only draws a dot in her art class. G. It encourages us to take the first step and believe in ourselves.
A: Jane, I don’t want to take part in the creative art competition.
B: Why 60
A: I don’t think so. I don’t even know what to draw.
B: Oh, come on, Jenny! 61
A: No. What’s it about
B: It’s about a little girl Vashi. 62 However, her teacher hangs her drawing of the dot(点) and believes that she can draw better. After that, she draws more dots and starts her journey of finding out her creative art talent.
A: Oh, it’s an amazing story. 63
B: I can’t agree more. The most important thing is to get started and see where we can go.
A: I know what to do. 64 Thanks, Jane.
B: You’re welcome. Remember, you’re far more talented than you’ve imagined.
第Ⅱ卷（共50分）
VI．任务型阅读。（65-66小题，每小题2分，67-68小题，每小题3分，共10分）
阅读下文并回答问题。
I love running, and for me, winning every race means success.
One day, my school held a sports event. I was ready and joined almost every running race. Many people came to watch. They were excited to see the running races because they were the most fun.
First was the 100m race. All the boys ran fast. As expected, I finished first and got loud applause(掌声).
Next was the 200m race. I ran as fast as possible and won again. The people cheered loudly. I jumped here and there happily and didn’t even shake hands with the other runners. It was tiring, but I felt proud and excited.
Then came the 400m race. After seeing my wins, many players have dropped out of the competition. Only one stayed: Matt, a special guest runner. Matt has low vision(视力) but plays many sports bravely. The teacher asked Matt if he continued the competition, but Matt surprised everyone by staying in the race. I thought I’d win easily, “This is useless. He probably can’t even see the finish line.”
The race began with just us two. When the starting gun fired, Matt and I both ran toward the finish line. I quickly ran ahead of Matt. Just 30 meters from winning, I was waiting for my third cheer... But suddenly, I got a sudden, strong pain—my leg cramped(抽筋).
__________________
65. Did the writer win the first race
________________________________________________________________________
66. How did the writer feel after the 200m race
________________________________________________________________________
67. What happened before the 400m race
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
68. What happened next Please finish the story. (about 30 words)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
VII．完成句子。（69-72小题，每空1分，73小题2分，共10分）
根据所给提示，完成句子。69-72小题，每空一词，含缩略词。73小题请将完整的句子写在答题卡上对应的位置。
69. Sam has already read Alice in Wonderland. （改为否定句）
Sam _________ read Alice in Wonderland _________.
70. We were exercising when it began to rain heavily. （对划线部分提问）
_________ were you _________ when it began to rain heavily
71. This is my little brother’s bike. （改同义句）
This bike _________ _________ my little brother.
72. 直到孩子睡着了，她才离开房间。（完成译句）
She ________ leave the room ________ the child fell asleep.
73. sit down, don’t, to enjoy, you, why, beauty of nature, the （连词成句）
________________________________________________________________
VIII. 概要补全。（75和76小题，每小题2分，74和77小题，每小题3分；共10分）
阅读文章，用恰当的短语或句子补全概要。补全部分字数不超过30词，不能照抄原文连续超过3个词。
Do you know what a resolution is It’s a kind of promise. Most of the time, we make promises to other people. (“Mom, I promise I’m going to tidy my room when I get back from school.”) However, promises you make to yourself are resolutions, and the most common kind is New Year’s resolutions. The start of the year is often a time for making solutions. When we make resolutions at the beginning of the year, we hope that we are going to improve our lives. Some people write down their resolutions and plans for the coming year. This helps them to remember their resolutions. Others tell their family and friends about their wishes and plans.
There are different kinds of resolutions. Some are about physical health. For example, some people promise themselves they are going to start an exercise program or eat less fast food. Many resolutions have to do with self-improvement. These are about making yourself a better person. Some people might say they are going to take up a hobby like painting or taking photos, or learn to play the guitar. Some resolutions have to do with better planning, like making a weekly plan for schoolwork. For example, a student may have to find more time to study.
Although there are differences, most resolutions have one thing in common. People hardly ever keep them! There are good reasons for this. Sometimes the resolutions may be too difficult to keep. Sometimes people just forget about them. For this reason, some people say the best resolution is to have no resolutions! How about you — will you make any next year
Resolutions are 74 , most commonly as New Year’s resolutions aimed at(旨在) 75 . They are different by kind: health-related (e.g. exercising), self-improvement (e.g. learning hobbies), and better planning (e. g. study plans). People often write them down or 76 to remember. However, most resolutions fail because 77 , causing some to suggest having no resolutions is best.
74. 75.
76. 77.
IX．书面表达。（满分20分）
假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Tom对你本学期在学校的学习、体育、志愿者活动以及在家庭中承担的家务劳动情况很感兴趣，通过邮件向你询问。请根据以下信息，给他回复邮件。
要求：
1. 80～120词，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
2. 内容包含所给要点，可适当发挥；
3. 文中不能出现自己的真实姓名和所在学校的名称。
参考信息：
Dear Tom,
How is it going I’m glad to know that you’re interested in my life.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Let me know if you have any other question.
Yours,
Li Hua
重庆广益中学初2023级九上定时训练英语
参考答案
第I卷（共100分）
Ⅰ. 听力测试。（1-6题,每题1分;7~20题，每题1.5分;21-24题，每题2分;共35分）
1-6 BCACBA 7-12 ABCABC 13-16 BABC 17-20 ABAC
21. being happy students 22. solve 23. reaches for 24. kind/friendly/helpful
(拼写错误、信息错误0分；大小和单复数及形式扣1分; ）
Ⅱ. 语法选择。(每题1分，共10分)
25-29 AABCA 30-34 ABCCB
Ⅱ. 完形填空。(每小题1.5分，共15分)
35-39 ACCBD 40-44 ADCBC
Ⅳ. 阅读理解。(每小题2分，共30分)
45-47 ADC 48-51 BDAD 52-55 BABB 56-59 DCAB
Ⅴ. 口语应用。（每小题2分，共10分）
60-64 BDFGE
第Ⅱ卷（共50分）
Ⅵ. 任务型阅读。（65-66每小题2分，67-68每小题3分，共10分）
65. Yes, he did.
66. He felt proud and excited.
67. Many players dropped out of the competition and the teacher asked Matt if he continued, but Matt stayed.
68. I tried to keep running but fell. Matt passed me and won. I felt ashamed but learned a lesson. （答案不唯一，符合情节发展即可）
Ⅶ. 完成句子。（69-72小题，每空1 分，73题2分，共10 分）
hasn’t yet 70. What doing 71. belongs to 72. didn’t until
（评分说明：形式、拼写错误不给分)
73. Why don’t you sit down to enjoy the beauty of nature
Ⅷ. 概要补全。(75和76小题，每小题2分，74和77小题，每小题3分；共10分)
74.promises made to oneself 75. life improvement 76, share them
77. they’re too difficult or forgotten
(拼写错误、信息错误0分；大小写单复数及形式错误扣1分;）
Ⅸ. 书面表达。（满分20分）
例文
Dear Tom,
How is it going I’m glad to know that you’re interested in my life. Now let me tell you something about it. As for my study, I am good at English. I got good grades in the last exam. I like reading English stories and watching English movies. In my free time, I do some sports. I run 3 times a week to keep fit. I think it’s good for my health. I often play basketball with my friends after school. On weekends, I usually go to the old people’s home. I help the old people read newspapers, wash clothes and so on. I often help my mother do housework at home, such as sweeping the floor, taking out the rubbish and so on.
Let me know if you have any other question.
Yours,
Li Hua
[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇电子邮件；
②时态：本文应使用“一般现在时”为主；
③提示：应注意题干给出的要点并适当补充，使文章内容充实。
[写作步骤]
第一步，借用文章已给开头，引出主题；
第二步，根据题干思维导图的要点，介绍自己本学期在学校的学习、体育、志愿者活动以及在家庭中承担的家务劳动情况。
[亮点词汇]
①as for至于
②keep fit保持健康
[高分句型]
① like reading English stories and watching English movies. (动名词作宾语)
②I think it’s good for my health. (宾语从句)
评分总则：
本题总分为20分，按各档次打分。
（评分参考意见：12分及其以下主要看识别主题、尝试表达的语言基本能力；13分-15分：能围绕主题使用句子表达，依据语言表达的连贯性和正确性给分；16分+：严格按照要求：内容完整、语言精准、语篇与段落逻辑、主题意义鲜明、积极、满足写作目的，主要看作者灵活应用语言的能力（16-17分）；满足表达目的上体现作者的独特点：在语篇逻辑和主题意义表达的内容选择上，体现作者对主题有一定的认知和生活体验（18-20分）。
2．评分时，先根据文章的逻辑和内容初步确定所属档次，再根据语言准确打分。
给分范围和要求：
第五档（优秀） （19—20分） 高水平完成了试题规定的任务 结构完整、条理清晰、逻辑严密、过渡自然 思想健康、符合题意、中心突出、内容充实 语言流畅、表达贴切、感情真挚、富有创意
第四档（良好）（16—18分） 较好完成了试题规定的任务 结构完整、条理分明、逻辑清晰、过渡自然 思想健康、符合题意、中心明确、内容充实 语言流畅、表达较贴切、感情真实
第三档（中等） （13—15分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务 结构较完整、条理较分明、有一定逻辑性 思想健康、符合题意、中心明确、内容较充实 较准确地使用语言、能清楚表达意思
第二档（较差） （8—12分） 未恰当完成试题规定的任务 结构不完整、条理不分明、逻辑不严密 思想健康、中心较明确，内容不充实，不能完全满足写作任务的要求 语言不够连贯，错误较多、影响对写作内容的理解 能将提示中的词块组成2-3个句子，8-10分，有描写活动安排及其理由的几个句子，语言错误较多11-12分。
第一档（差） （0—7分） 未完成试题规定的任务 完全不写0分； 完全抄写试卷内容与写作无关1~2分； 部分抄写参考信息，3-4分思想健康； 有与主题相关的碎片化信息或语言表达，5-7分；
